ISTQB 4.0 Foundation Level - mock test2

ISTQB Foundation Level - Full Mock Exam (40 Questions)

1. (Chapter 1) Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?
a) To prove that there are no defects in the software.
b) To find as many defects as possible so developers can be blamed.
c) To provide information to stakeholders to help them make decisions.
d) To ensure that the software is 100% bug-free before release.

2. (Chapter 1) "Testing is context-dependent." What does this principle mean?
a) All software should be tested in the same way, regardless of its purpose.
b) The approach to testing a safety-critical system should be different from testing an e-commerce site.
c) Testing should only be performed by testers who have experience in that specific business context.
d) The context of a defect is more important than its severity.

3. (Chapter 1) A developer makes a mistake in the code. This mistake remains in the code until it is executed, at which point it causes the system to crash. What is the crash an example of?
a) An error
b) A defect
c) A failure
d) A fault

4. (Chapter 2) In which software development model is testing considered a separate phase that occurs only after the entire development phase is complete?
a) Agile model
b) Incremental model
c) V-model
d) Waterfall model

5. (Chapter 2) What is the primary purpose of acceptance testing?
a) To find defects in the interfaces between components.
b) To verify that the system works in the production environment.
c) To establish confidence that the system meets the users' needs and requirements.
d) To ensure that all individual units of code work as expected.

6. (Chapter 2) A defect was found and fixed. The tester then re-runs the original test case that found the defect to ensure it is now resolved. What is this activity called?
a) Regression testing
b) Re-testing
c) Confirmation testing
d) Impact analysis

7. (Chapter 2) Why is regression testing important?
a) It helps to test the new features added in the latest release.
b) It helps to ensure that changes to the software have not introduced new defects in existing functionality.
c) It is the final stage of acceptance testing performed by the customer.
d) It helps to confirm that a specific bug has been fixed.

8. (Chapter 3) Which of the following is a primary benefit of static testing?
a) It measures the performance and reliability of the software under load.
b) It can find defects early in the lifecycle, which is less expensive to fix.
c) It can only be performed by developers who wrote the code.
d) It effectively finds memory leaks and performance bottlenecks.

9. (Chapter 3) Which of the following review types is considered the MOST formal?
a) Walkthrough
b) Informal Review
c) Technical Review
d) Inspection

10. (Chapter 3) During a formal review, who is responsible for leading the review meeting and ensuring the process is followed?
a) The Author
b) The Scribe
c) The Facilitator (or Moderator)
d) The Management

11. (Chapter 4) A system has an input field for age, which accepts values from 18 to 60. Using equivalence partitioning, which of the following is a set of valid and invalid partitions?
a) Valid: 17, 18, 60. Invalid: 61
b) Valid: 40. Invalid: 17, 61
c) Valid: 18, 60. Invalid: 17, 19
d) Valid: 35. Invalid: "abc", 17

12. (Chapter 4) Using 2-value boundary value analysis for an input field that accepts integers from 10 to 20, which values should be tested?
a) 9, 10, 20, 21
b) 10, 11, 19, 20
c) 9, 10, 15, 20, 21
d) 10, 20

13. (Chapter 4) Which test technique is most suitable for testing a system with complex business rules and logical conditions?
a) State Transition Testing
b) Decision Table Testing
c) Equivalence Partitioning
d) Error Guessing

14. (Chapter 4) If a set of tests has achieved 100% decision coverage, what other coverage has also been achieved?
a) 100% statement coverage
b) 100% boundary value coverage
c) 100% path coverage
d) It is impossible to know without more information.

15. (Chapter 4) A tester is exploring an application without a formal test case, learning about the system, and designing and executing tests at the same time. What is this technique called?
a) Checklist-based testing
b) Error Guessing
c) Exploratory testing
d) Static analysis

16. (Chapter 4) In the Agile Test Quadrants, which quadrant focuses on technology-facing tests that critique the product, such as performance and security testing?
a) Q1
b) Q2
c) Q3
d) Q4

17. (Chapter 4) Which of the following is an example of a black-box test technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) State Transition Testing
d) Code Review

18. (Chapter 5) Which of the following is a key activity of Test Control?
a) Comparing actual progress against the test plan.
b) Defining the scope and objectives of testing.
c) Taking action to adjust the plan when tests are behind schedule.
d) Writing a summary report at the end of the project.

19. (Chapter 5) The risk that a key member of the test team might leave the project is an example of what type of risk?
a) Product Risk
b) Business Risk
c) Project Risk
d) Quality Risk

20. (Chapter 5) What is the primary goal of a risk-based testing approach?
a) To test every feature with the same level of intensity.
b) To eliminate all risks before the product is released.
c) To focus testing efforts on the areas of highest risk.
d) To use risk analysis as a replacement for test planning.

21. (Chapter 5) A defect is found where the system crashes when a user tries to upload a file larger than 10 GB. This feature is rarely used. How would you classify this defect's severity and priority?
a) High Severity, Low Priority
b) High Severity, High Priority
c) Low Severity, High Priority
d) Low Severity, Low Priority

22. (Chapter 5) Which of the following is NOT typically included in a standard defect report?
a) The actual result and the expected result.
b) The name of the tester who found the defect.
c) A proposed solution or code fix for the defect.
d) The version of the software under test.

23. (Chapter 5) A test manager creates a report that summarizes all testing activities, analyzes variances from the plan, and lists remaining risks. What is this report called?
a) Test Plan
b) Defect Report
c) Test Progress Report
d) Test Completion Report

24. (Chapter 6) Which of the following is a major risk when introducing a new test automation tool into an organization?
a) The team will find too many defects.
b) Manual testing will no longer be needed.
c) Having unrealistic expectations about the tool's benefits.
d) The tool will be too easy for junior testers to use.

25. (Chapter 6) Which of the following tools would be used to analyze code for potential defects without actually executing it?
a) Test Execution Tool
b) Performance Testing Tool
c) Static Analysis Tool
d) Test Management Tool

26. (Chapter 1) Which of the 7 testing principles explains why it is important to continually review and update test cases?
a) Defects cluster together.
b) Beware of the pesticide paradox.
c) Testing is context-dependent.
d) Exhaustive testing is impossible.

27. (Chapter 3) Who is primarily responsible for fixing the defects found during a review?
a) The Facilitator
b) The Reviewer
c) The Author
d) The Scribe

28. (Chapter 4) Which of the following would be the best technique to test a system that behaves differently depending on a series of events, such as an ATM machine?
a) Decision Table Testing
b) Use Case Testing
c) Statement Coverage
d) State Transition Testing

29. (Chapter 5) The test plan specifies that "testing will begin once the main features are code-complete and the test environment is stable." This is an example of:
a) Exit Criteria
b) A Test Objective
c) A Project Risk
d) Entry Criteria

30. (Chapter 6) Which of the following tasks would be supported by a Test Management tool?
a) Automating the execution of regression tests.
b) Measuring the response time of a web server.
c) Managing requirements, test cases, and defects.
d) Reviewing code against coding standards.

31. (Chapter 2) Testing individual software components or modules that have been created by developers is known as what level of testing?
a) System Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) Component Testing
d) Acceptance Testing

32. (Chapter 1) What is the relationship between an error, a defect, and a failure?
a) A developer's error causes a failure, which is observed as a defect.
b) A defect in the code causes an error, which leads to a failure.
c) A developer's error causes a defect in the code, which may lead to a failure when executed.
d) A failure in the system causes a defect, which is documented as an error.

33. (Chapter 4) In ATDD (Acceptance Test-Driven Development), when are the acceptance tests typically defined?
a) After the code has been written and delivered to the test team.
b) During the system testing phase.
c) Before the code is written, in collaboration with developers, testers, and business representatives.
d) After the software has been deployed to production.

34. (Chapter 5) The test team is using the Wideband Delphi technique for estimation. What is a key characteristic of this technique?
a) It relies on detailed historical data from previous projects.
b) It uses a deck of cards to represent effort.
c) It involves an iterative process of anonymous estimation and group discussion.
d) It is a very fast technique that provides a quick estimate.

35. (Chapter 3) Which of the following is a goal of a walkthrough?
a) To find as many defects as possible through a formal, structured process.
b) To achieve consensus among technical experts and make decisions.
c) To allow the author to explain the work product and gather feedback in a collaborative session.
d) To provide a final sign-off for the release of a product.

36. (Chapter 2) Verifying that the system meets its non-functional requirements, such as performance and usability, is the objective of which test type?
a) Functional Testing
b) Non-functional Testing
c) Structural Testing
d) Confirmation Testing

37. (Chapter 4) A tester is using their knowledge of common mistakes made by programmers to design tests. For example, they are testing for "division by zero". What technique is being used?
a) Exploratory Testing
b) Decision Table Testing
c) Error Guessing
d) Boundary Value Analysis

38. (Chapter 6) Which of the following is a primary benefit of test automation?
a) It can find all possible defects in the software.
b) It can replace the need for skilled exploratory testers.
c) It is effective for running repetitive tests, such as regression testing.
d) It is very inexpensive to set up and requires no maintenance.

39. (Chapter 5) What is the main purpose of a Test Completion Report?
a) To provide a detailed plan for the next phase of testing.
b) To list all developers and testers who worked on the project.
c) To summarize the testing activities and provide a final assessment of quality.
d) To get formal approval for the test budget.

40. (Chapter 1) According to the "defects cluster together" principle, where should a test team focus its efforts?
a) Evenly across all modules of the system.
b) On the modules where the most defects have already been found.
c) Only on the new features and not on the existing ones.
d) On the modules that were the easiest to develop.

 

정답 (Click)

• 1. c)
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• 6. c) or b) (c가 더 정확하지만 b도 맞는 답)
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